Furthermore, we can affirm that His sacrificial offering in eternity as it is manifestly expressed in time by His death on the cross, made this righteousness available to all who are His elect (II Corinthians 5:21). Jesus who is the revealed righteousness of God in His very essence is revealed as a righteousness nee•nee theh kho· pees nom•oo theek•eh•os•ee•nee literally rendered, "that now is apart from ... separated from or severed from the Law righteousness". In reading the account of the Kingdom Church in transition recorded in the 21^st chapter of Acts, it doesn’t appear that those in Jerusalem had comprehended this apart-from-the-law righteousness (Romans 4:21-25). All Biblical records infer that the Apostle Paul was the first one to receive the revelation of the fact that God’s righteousness and redemption are in Jesus Christ (Acts 13:38-39; Galatians1:2; 3:16). Now it cannot be pinpointed exactly when it was revealed that God’s righteousness in Christ supplanted the Mosaic Law, but one thing is certain; Paul is clearly teaching the Roman believers that their righteousness is in Christ and that the Law has nothing to do with it.

As we exegete the latter portion of Romans 3:21, it states that the righteousness of God is "being witnessed to by the Law and the prophets". It must be clearly understood that the principle of the righteousness of God being based upon faith was not a part of the Law, but it also was not something new, for the Prophet Habakkuk has stated as well as Paul that "the just shall live by faith" (Habakkuk 2:4; Romans 1:17). Abraham is a supreme example of one who received righteousness on the basis of faith. In Genesis 15:6, we read of Abraham: "and he believed in the Lord, and he counted it to him for righteousness" (Romans 4:3; Galatians 3:6). David also speaks of the person who the Lords makes righteous apart from works (Psalms 32:1-2; Romans 4:6-8). Peter, in corroboration to Paul’s revelations, earlier affirms this same principle as he speaks to Cornelius and his friends (Acts 10:43). In light of this statement, we embrace the position that the principle of the righteousness of God was revealed to Paul and either directly or indirectly to Peter, as they were given insight into the confirmation of this Old Testament blessing (Galatians 1:12).

Now we move to Romans 3:22 from the King James Version, "Even the righteousness of God which is by faith of Jesus Christ unto all and upon all them that believe: for there is no difference:" And from the Greek Text, "even a righteousness of God through the faithfulness of Jesus Christ unto all those believing: for there is no difference;" In this verse Paul explains two things: (1) the one through whom this righteousness is channeled. (2) Those who are the recipients of this righteousness. Now the most important truth in this verse, but at the same time the most misunderstood truth involves how God has extended His righteousness to the believer. Observe the key word in this verse, "faithfulness", which in effect involves how God has extended His righteousness, even though it has been commonly misinterpreted in such context. Here we note the Greek word pees· teh· os, as it appears in the nominative case, singular number and in most contexts is correctly translated, "faith". On the other hand there are several contexts whereby it is necessary to translate the insertion of this Greek word pees· teh· os with the translation, "faithfulness" i.e., (Matthew 23:23; Romans 3:3;Galatians 5:22; Colossians 2:12; Philippians 5; I Timothy 4:12; 6:11; II Timothy 2:22; Titus 2:10). In each of these contexts the name of Jesus Christ is in the genitive case, indicating that it is a characteristic He possesses (Romans 3:26; Galatians 2:16; 3:22; Ephesians 3:12; Philippians 3:9). John the Baptist declared (through divine revelation) that Jesus is "the Lamb of God who takes away the sin of the world (John 1:29,36).

So as the eternal Lamb of God, it was imperative that He be without blemish or spot, i.e., sinless (I Peter 1:19). Now the righteousness of God is inextricably amalgamated with the perfect faithfulness of Jesus Christ. As the Son of God, He was put through the most stringent testing. Yet He never wavered, but remained apart from sin and was faithful even unto death on the cross (Hebrews 4:4-15). Note the faithfulness (pees•teh•os) of Jesus Christ, which reached its zenith on the cross, as the manifested basis for our being made the righteousness of God in Him (II Corinthians 5:21).

Now as we further exegete this verse (Romans 3:22), notice Paul’s answer to the implied question, "to whom is the righteousness of God available? The statement given, "unto all believing", is in the present tense, which means that His righteousness is freely given to all those trusting, relying upon, and exercising faith in Jesus Christ (Romans 1:16). Now the real issue is what is the source of this faith? If it is humanly generated or if it is possible to originate in the mind of a sinner would not it in itself be considered a work? But if on the other hand this faith is implanted in the minds of those chosen in Him (Ephesians 1:4; 2:8) and exercised in conjunction with the Holy Spirit, isn’t this necessarily the proper function and classification of salvation by grace? Any human contribution or input destroys the aspect of grace or the concept of no merit. Any human function as it relates to faith or righteousness or sanctification or holiness or justification, annihilates the grace equation. Now in the final phrase of this verse (22), the apostle Paul states that there is no thee· ahs· to· lee rendered "difference". So there is no distinction, nor separation between Jews and Gentiles. All are equally under sin and all are treated equal under God’s sovereign purpose (I Corinthians 1:30; Romans 8:28; 9:11).

Now we move to Romans 3:23, a verse of scripture that many who are of the legalistic persuasion would rather discount. We view it first from the King James Version "For all have sinned, and come short of the glory of God." And from the Greek Text, "for all have sinned and fall short of the glory of God". Now as we observed in Romans 3:22, God’s offer of righteousness through the faithfulness of Jesus Christ is extended to all those believing, whether Jews or Gentiles; there is no difference between us as we are all sinners (by nature) and we all need true righteousness if we desire a right relationship with God. We must keep in mind that sinners by nature, when left to themselves, do not desire a right relationship with a totally righteousness God (John 3:19-20) because all are totally depraved (proponents of corporate election must understand this). Total depravity means that not a single depraved individual desires God’s righteousness in Christ unless he is efficaciously drawn by God through the Holy Spirit (John 6:44). Pastors and Ministers must understand this in their church services when they extend so-called altar calls or invitations for discipleship for salvation. Furthermore, when we see individuals genuinely trusting Jesus Christ as their Savior, we can posit the fact that God, prior to their believing, gave them the faith with which to believe based on His chose of election. If the sinner generates faith within himself, it is no longer salvation by grace but by human works. This is explicitly demonstrated in the contents of Act 13:46-48, but more importantly the prayerful consideration of Ephesians 2:8-9.

This 23^rd verse, interspersed between verse 21-22 and that which follows, is an additional summary of the plight of the entire human race. Now this statement leaves no room for exception. We have here the Greek word pahn· dehs translated "all", thus all have ee· mahr•ton or "sinned", missed the mark, missed the way, erred, and failed God. In keeping with what Paul has already said in Romans 1:18-3:18, this verse recapitulates the fact that sin is the universal problem for all of mankind (Romans 5:12; John 1:8,10). Now the consequences of the fact that all men have sinned are that we fall short of the glory of God". The Greek word thox∙ees translated "glory", as used here basically refers to the opinion that may be assigned to a particular person or thing, more specifically it may be a very high opinion of one’s person, character, or reputation. This same meaning predominates in the New Testament, i.e., it represents our opinion and presumption of what a person is like. So it is indicative of the truth that God has revealed concerning Himself, thus we are able to form a relatively accurate opinion of what He is like, i.e., that which is pertaining to His glory; the sum total of whom He has revealed Himself to be i.e., an omnipotent, loving, merciful and gracious God ---- and ones rational opinion of it, constitutes ones perception of the glory of God. Now to ee∙stehr∙oon∙deh rendered, "fall short" of the glory of God is to fail, to lack, or to be void of God’s characteristics. We need to remember that man was created in the image of God, and in this respect shared in the glory of God. But sin deeply marred this image, and has caused mankind to fall far short of the glory, which he was formally associated with (Genesis 1:27).

Now we move to Romans 3:24 from the King James Version, "Being justified freely by his grace through the redemption that is in Christ Jesus:" And from the Greek Text, "being justified freely by His grace through the redemption that is in Christ Jesus". Now as we continue in the discourse, we do so first on the basis that all have sinned and are guilty before God, thus God’s justification is applied to designated ones who believe by His grace. This is the epitome of that which is displayed in Christ’s redemptive death upon Calvary. Here notice the Greek participle theek∙eh∙oo∙meh∙nee translated "being justified", which is in the present tense and the passive voice. It denotes that God Himself is continuously declaring righteousness, and vindicating designated sinners in this present Church age. Previously in verse 22, the Apostle Paul spoke about the righteousness, which God has provided through the faithfulness of Jesus Christ. Now it is on the basis of this divinely imputed righteousness that the believer is justified. Here the Greek adverb tho∙reh∙ahn is rendered "freely" or "without a cause", which means that God’s justification of the believer, is not caused by any human input or any contribution outside of God Himself. Those who may be legalistically or denominationally persuaded or otherwise, must understand that no one can have anything to do with the divine act of justifying or declaring one to be righteous. Justification is without cause or merit on the believer’s part, therefore no one can influence God’s gracious act on one’s behalf.

As we further exegete verse 24, notice the Greek preposition thee∙ah rendered "through", as it is used with the genitive case; specifies the action through which this justification is effectuated. Now in order for God to be just and at the same time to justify the believer, someone had to assume the penalty of the sinner’s sin, namely death (Romans 6:23). The fact that God freely justifies by His grace is inseparable from the ahp●ol●ee· tro· seh· os translated "redemption"; which denotes freeing for a ransom paid or the liberation from sin procured by Jesus Christ’s substitutionary death in eternity as it was manifested on Calvary (Isaiah 53:4-6; I Corinthians 15:3).

The definite article tees noted prior to the Greek phrase ehn Khrees•to Ee•ee•soo structures the translation in the verse, "that is in Christ Jesus". This clearly, absolutely and exclusively establishes redemption in the essence of (Jesus Christ), which is in the locative case and also by means of (Jesus Christ), which is in the instrumental case. In other words, this statement limits redemption, hence justification to God in Christ Jesus, the essence of God, incarnate in human flesh (Acts 4:12). Hence, Jesus is the only solution or remedy as there is no room for any self-styled false saviors. Jesus is the only true savior whose bodily sacrifice is sufficient to pay the ransom that is required to remove the curse of sin. God’s people must not be hoodwinked into believing that there is another way or remedy for receiving justification. It is of the uttermost importance that all those who are saved, thoroughly understand the true basis of their acceptable and righteous standing before God. This is accomplishable only by receiving the righteousness of God that is obtained through the merit of the worth of Christ Jesus.

Now we move to Romans 3:25 from the King James Version, "Whom God hath set forth to be a propitiation through faith in his blood, to declare his righteousness for the remission of sins that are past, through the forbearance of God;" And from the Greek Text, "whom God previously placed a propitiation through faith in His blood, to show His righteousness because of the passing over of previously committed sins, in the forbearance of God;" Here we note one brief comment regarding the ending, "in the forbearance of God". Now some translations place this statement in the following verse (26), but on the basis of thought content, it seems to blend better with the conveyance of this verse (25). In the opening statement of this verse (25) Paul states, "whom God set forth a propitiation". Note, the Greek verb pro· eh· theh· to translated "previously placed", is derived from the Greek preposition pro and verb tee•thee•mee and literally means that God "placed beforehand", i.e., previously purposed and determined that Jesus Christ would be an eel•ahs•tee•ree•on rendered "propitiation". This Greek noun describes Jesus as the one "acceptable sacrifice" who appeases, makes atonement and who Himself is the mercy seat, the only place where sinners can find mercy before a Holy God (Hebrews 9:5).

Now the manifested establishment of the mercy seat originated in the Old Testament. In Exodus 25:17-22, God instructed Moses to make a mercy seat of pure gold as He gave its design details and location above the Ark of the Covenant between the Cherubim. It was where the High Priest qualified the people to meet with God based upon the acceptance of the sacrifice that was offered as the appeasement for sin. More specifically the mercy seat was the lid or covering of the Ark of the Covenant made of pure gold. It was on and before the mercy seat, which the High Priest was to sprinkle the blood of the expiatory sacrifice on the great Day of Atonement as it was the place where the Lord promised to meet His people (Exodus 25:17,22; 29:42; 30:36; Leviticus 16:2,14,15). Now again, here in Romans 3:25, the Apostle Paul uses the application of this word to assert that Christ was the true mercy seat, the antitype of the cover of the Ark of the Covenant (Hebrews 9:5). Therefore, eel●ahs●tee●ree●on translated propitiation, means a place of conciliation, expiation or an altar or place of sacrifice. Now it does not only reference the expiatory sacrifices themselves. Note here in Romans 3:25 and in Hebrews 9:5, Jesus Christ is designated as the propitiation because He is designated not only as the place where the sinner deposits the sacrifice for sin, but He Himself is the acceptable sacrifice or means of expiation. Elsewhere in our writings, there is further study of the subject matter, propitiation, which entails greater and more detailed in-depth study of this doctrinal truth.

Now we turn to Romans 3:26 from the King James Version, "To declare, I say, at this time his righteousness: that he might be just, and the justifier of him which believeth in Jesus". And from the Greek Text, "to show His righteousness at the present time, that He might be just and the one justifying out of the faithfulness of Jesus". Now in order to fully understand the truth that is conveyed in this verse, it is necessary to transfer from verse 25 the fact that God predetermined and thus Christ actually died as an expiator of the believer’s sin (Acts 3:23). He died that God might "show His righteousness at the present time". Here the Greek word ehn•theex•een translated "show", conveys the thought of God, pointing out, manifesting and displaying His righteousness during ehn to neen keh•ro rendered "during the present time". In other words, the righteousness of God has been publicly manifested to all men in the death of Jesus on the cross. Now in dealing with this subject, we must keep in mind foremost, the fact that the wages of sin is death or to equate it, sin equals death.

The fact that sin equals death is an inviolable Biblical principle (Genesis 2:17; Romans 1:32; 5:12,21; 6:16,23). Now for God to declare that sin equals death, and to forbearingly and patiently put up with previously committed sins; would be a challenge to the integrity of His righteousness. Thus Jesus Christ in eternity assumed the penalty of mankind’s sin, i.e., death, even the death of the cross (Philippians 2:8). This means that in eternity, Jesus took upon Him the burden of responsibility and liability of our sin nature. So in Christ’s substitutionary death, God has made a full payment for the believer’s sin. This payment is effectual for all those who have been designated to exercise faith in Christ’s blood. Thus God is free to simultaneously maintain His righteousness and mercifully and graciously deal with believing sinners. Furthermore, the propitiatory death of Jesus Christ was necessary for God to be just and the one justifying out of or because of the faithfulness of Jesus. Now of course, by His very nature, we recognize that God could not be other than theek•eh•on or "just", equitable, fair and righteous in His divineness. Note, God’s divine justness demands strict adherence to the moral principles He has established for governing the universe. For example sin leads to death; so for God to arbitrarily recompense sin with life; would destroy His integrity, which of course He would not do. Please understand this; there was no way for God to remain just and righteous and at the same time to justify believers apart from any outside acceptable and perfect sin substitutes. Jesus Christ, the sinless God-Man was both qualified and willing to assume the sin of everyone believing (Romans 3:22) and exercising faith in His blood (Romans 3:25). So on the basis of His propitiatory death, God remains just in His character and is also able to justify believers.

Note, as we turn our attention to the last phrase in verse 26 of Romans chapter three, it states, "the one justifying out of the faith (faithfulness) of Jesus", as this is a literal rendering of the Greek phrase keh theek•eh•oon•dah ton ehk pees•teh•os Ee•ee•soo. Here the preposition ehk indicates that the source, which makes it possible for God to justify sinners, is the faithfulness of Jesus Christ. Now it is clear that purely grammatically speaking, the Greek translation is literally the "faith of Jesus Christ", but rendering it the faithfulness of Jesus Christ more accurately conveys the intended thought as one cannot be nor do faith. Any expression of faith must be "faithful". This is in full accord with Paul’s use of this grammatical construction (Romans 3:22; Galatians 2:16; 3:22; Philippians 3:9). So the absolute faithfulness of Jesus Christ, including His life and death, is the essence of His righteousness, which is imputed unto sinners; the reason God is able to justify them (II Corinthians 5:21). It is sheer folly to talk about God being just and the justifier of sinners apart from the faithfulness of Christ as initiated by its actuation in eternity and as finalized by its manifestation of His death on Calvary.

We now continue our discourse in Romans 3:27 from the King James Version, "Where is boasting then? It is excluded. By what law? of works? Nay: but by the law of faith". And from the Greek Text, "Where then is boasting? It is excluded. Through what kind of law? Of works? No, but through the law of faith." Now granting from the contents of the previous verses that justification depends entirely on the faithfulness of Christ; as it is epitomized in His substitutionary death on the cross; we must insist that there is no room for boasting as far as the provision for justification is concerned. One very important element of the believer’s mindset is ones assessment of the appropriation of justification. Here we must in earnest understand that if we are able to self generate the faith by which we presume to appropriate justification, then it would generate an avenue and place for human boasting or bragging.

But if on the other hand, we acknowledge that God Himself gives us the faith in His appropriation of this justification and that justification and faith are an integral gift from God; then it follows that there is no room or place for boasting or bragging.

Next we observe the Greek word kahf· khee· seen translated "boasting" or "bragging", as it describes one of the most disgusting traits that an individual can display. In Galatians chapter six verses 12 through 14, the Apostle Paul exposes the despicable practice of some Jewish believers who had only one supreme desire, and that was to exhibit a form of righteousness and justification based on circumcision. As we look at these three verses of scripture found in Galatians 6:12-14, we view verse 12 from the King James Version, "As many as desire to make a fair shew in the flesh, they constrain you to be circumcised; only lest they should suffer persecution for the cross of Christ". Now from the Greek Text, "As many as want to make a good showing in the flesh, these compel you to be circumcised, only in order that they may not be persecuted for the cross of Christ". Here verse 12 gives a classic example of certain misguided groups of believers found unfortunately in the Body of Christ (the Church); whose primary aim is to make a ehf· pros•o· pee· seh rendered, "good showing" in the flesh, i.e., they are determined to exhibit a good face and have a good or perfect outward appearance.

We consistently find this among many legalists and even certain denominations that pride themselves in so-called looking and walking Holy before God. In this particular instance, Paul makes reference to some Judaizers who had followed his tracks through Galatia and they were apparently emissaries of a legal faction of Jews, probably located in Jerusalem, though they were not associated with James, Peter and John (Acts 15:14; Galatians 2:9). As it evolved, the main object of these Judaizers was to make a good showing and appearance in the flesh. They wanted to take back to Jerusalem (their headquarters) a good report of numbers they had circumcised and convinced to keep the Mosaic Law. In view of all that which is expressed concerning their intentions, it does not appear that they were genuine, but that they were promoting the Law to further their own selfish ends (Galatians 1:7; 2:4-5; 5:7-12). Unfortunately we observe too much of this same practice in the Church today.

Now with respect to the Judaizer’s emphasis on circumcision, Paul states that these ahn•ahg· kah· zoo•seen translated "compel", make it necessary and constrain you to be circumcised. In Acts 15:1, it documents the incident that Paul and Barnabas encountered as they returned to Antioch of Syria from their first Missionary journey to Galatia; certain men of this group came down from Judea and were teaching that, "except you are circumcised according to the custom of Moses you are not able to be saved". Note, they were saying this with respect to the Gentile believers; insisting that their faith in Jesus Christ and His substitutionary death was not nearly enough but that they were required to be circumcised in the same manner as the Jews who had been under the Law. Now as a result of the difficulty these men stirred up over the issue of circumcision, Paul and Barnabas immediately went up to the Jerusalem council or conference where it was judged that the Gentile converts were not required to be circumcised. But these diehards in Galatia; in spite of the Jerusalem council’s decision, were incredibly still compelling the Gentiles to be circumcised (Galatians 2:3-6).

Note the amazing reason offered by the Judaizer for compelling all the Galatian believers to be circumcised, "that they would not be persecuted for the cross of Christ". Oh what subversion! What an arrogant distortion of the truth! Any dependence on any aspect of the Law or any dependants on anything outside of that which was manifested on the cross, testifies that there is no need for the cross. It actually testifies that the Christ’s sacrifice has no redemptive value or significance; hence no offense. Now these Judaizers apparently recognized that Jesus was the Messiah of the Old Testament, however they held to His Messiah-ship strictly within the context of the Mosaic Law. They obviously rejected the principle of justification by faith (Acts 15:24; Galatians 1:7-9; 2:4-5). The cross of Jesus Christ apparently had no redemptive significance for them; they openly rejected its sacrifice as the sole basis for salvation! Here in this verse the two reasons the Apostle Paul gives for their rejection of the cross was their desire to make a "good showing in the flesh" and that "they may not be persecuted". It is critical for us to understand that the cross does not condemn us but we are born condemned. Contrariwise, the cross is the only place of manifestation (remember the mercy seat) where we are freed!

And now for corroboration, we focus on Galatians 6:13 from the King James Version, "For neither they themselves who are circumcised keep the law; but desire to have you circumcised, that they may glory in your flesh. And from the Greek Text, "For neither are those being circumcised keeping the law themselves, but they desire that you be circumcised, in order that they may boast in your flesh". Now as we examine this verse, it is obvious that Paul uses the phrase "those being circumcised", with reference to the Judaizers. Note the present tense and passive voice suggest that while they are imposing circumcision on others, they themselves are not taking seriously the keeping of the Mosaic Law. Here they make a big issue about the physical rite of circumcision, but neglect the rest of the Law according to their own whims. As we observe the current operations of Christendom, this seems very familiar, i.e., men compelling others to do what they are not committed to do themselves.

Now Jesus severely criticized this same kind of conduct by the Jewish religious leaders (Matthew 15:6; 23:23). Paul likewise, as he writes to the Roman believers points out the inconsistencies between what the Jewish leaders demanded and how they themselves actually lived (Romans 2:21-25). Now in view of this inconsistency on the part of the Judaizers in demanding that the Galatians be circumcised while they they were not keeping the Law; Paul here draws the conclusion that they were spurious religious opportunists. They were not really concerned about the spiritual welfare of the Galatians, but only with their own personal advantages. These types of individuals have infiltrated the ministry today and many of God’s precious people are enslaved victims of such. Paul points out here that circumcision was not important to them as a requirement of the Mosaic Law. Their main purpose in requiring it was that it gave them a basis for kahf•khee•son•deh rendered "boasting, glorying and bragging". Now according to the literal meaning of this verse Paul definitely writes these Judaizers off as religious charlatans who were totally motivated by their own personal interests (Galatians 4; 17,21,29: 5:7-9). Now it is sad but there are many who can be classified in this category today.

Here we continue in Galatians 6:14 from the King James Version "But God forbid that I should glory, save in the cross of our Lord Jesus Christ, by whom the world is crucified unto me, and I unto the world". And from the Greek Text, "But for me, may I never boast except in the cross of our Lord Jesus Christ, through which the world has been crucified to me and I to the world". Here Paul so thoroughly abhorred the desire of the Judaizers to boast in flesh circumcision that he literally cries out a prayer (optative mood), "May I never boast in anything except the Cross of Christ". In other words the only thing that we can boast in is God and His accomplishments through the efficacious work of Jesus Christ as determined in eternity and manifested upon Calvary. For the Apostle Paul to see these Judaizers graveling and wallowing in the mire of flesh boasting, it must have been a disgusting sight! It is even more disgusting today. In I Corinthians 3:21, Paul condemns all human boasting, wherein he states -----"So then let no one boast in men". In II Corinthians 10:17, Paul states, "Let the one boasting boast in the Lord". Thus again we see that the only legitimate object of boasting is the Lord and His finished work of redemption! Man’s boasting is an exceeding foul odor and stench before our Holy and righteous God! No one should ever be found guilty of glorifying except in that which has been accomplished through the blood of Jesus, which was shed for His elect. One must realize that it and it alone represents the power of God unto salvation to everyone believing (Romans 1:16). Here Paul goes on to elaborate on the significance of the cross to him personally. Again, boasting should be confined to the one who has accomplished salvation and that eliminates all of mankind.

And now we revert to Romans 3:27 again from the Greek Text, "Where then is boasting? It is excluded. Through what kind of law? Of works? No, but through the law of faith." As we further exegete this verse, Paul now raises the question "through what kind of Law was boasting excluded? Now expanding this question, Paul is asking through what sort, type, and form of Law was boasting eliminated? Now there are many types of different laws and principles, which govern human behavior. These fall into two general categories: (1) those, which operate on the basis of works (ehr•gon) and (2) those, which operate on the basis of faith (pees•teh•os). Here Paul flatly denies that a Law, which functions according to works, will exclude boasting; in fact it will produce it. Now on the other hand, the Law (principle), which operates according to faith, links believers to the Savior through His faithfulness as it definitely locks out all boasting. So this verse of scripture should eliminate every vestige of human effort and works from salvation in that it is totally a free gift provided by God (Ephesians 2:8-9). The worth and value of every ministry should be gauged from one standard; and that is who is magnified and who is glorified and upon whose work and accomplishment is the foundation resting upon (I Corinthians 3:9-15). Our faith, which God has deposited in us, is not of us or out of us. God is the author, originator and initiator of faith. It is only ours because God granted it to us.

Now we move to Romans 3:28 from the King James Version, "Therefore we conclude that a man is justified by faith without the deeds of the law". And from the Greek Text, "For we consider that a man is justified by faith apart from the works of the law". Note the Greek verb loy•ee•zom•eh•thah translated "counted", "regarding" or "concluded". Here Paul concludes that believers are justified solely by faith (Galatians 2:16; Ephesians 2:8). Note the usage of the Greek present passive infinitive theek•eh· oos· theh rendered "justified", discloses that God Himself is actively and continuously engaged in declaring His elect just, rightly approved, acquitted and thus vindicated in His sight.

Notice that God initiates and moves the act of justification to its fruition. God’s method of identifying the believer with the Savior is "by faith" (pees•tees), i.e., trust, belief and confidence in the redemptive power of the blood of Christ (Romans 3:25).

Now one must understand that this justification by faith is "kho· pees", that is "apart from", separated from, and totally independent of the Mosaic Law (Romans 3:20). It must be clearly established that faith is an inextricable part of grace, thus faith cannot be untied or unraveled from grace. Faith is the medium through which the provision of God’s grace is channeled to the believer. Faith is a function of grace, but Law functions by works. So not only is the believer justified apart from the works of the Law, but these two principles are mutually exclusive to the extent that if they are mixed they destroy each other.

Now to further illustrate this point, we direct your attention to Romans 11:6, wherein the Apostle Paul makes reference to the incompatibility of grace and works. Here from the King James Version," And if by grace, then is it no more of works: otherwise grace is no more grace. But if it be of works, then is it no more grace: otherwise work is no more work". And from the Greek Text, "And if by grace, it is no longer out of works, for then grace is no longer grace." First, we note that in many translations including the King James Version and the majority Greek Text, there is an added duplicate statement "And if out of works, no longer is it grace for then the work is no longer work". This added gloss does not affect the meaning of the content except as it may distract from focusing on the main thought conveyance. In this verse, the Apostle Paul succinctly defines what grace is and is not. Since this verse makes it clear that grace and works are at opposite ends of the spectrum, they are mutually exclusive. Note it is very important that we consider the exact meaning of both words (grace and works). Here the Greek noun kahr•ees translated "Grace", as used in this verse conveys the meaning of a free gift, free favor, thus God freely giving all that is necessary for salvation and the free provision God has made for us in Christ (John 1:17; II Corinthians 8:9; 9:15). Grace focuses on what God has done for us in Christ, the benefits of which are freely proffered to us (II Corinthians 5:21).

Finally, God’s offer of salvation by grace includes both the provision of it and the means by which it is appropriated, namely the faithfulness of Christ (Ephesians 2:8-9). The Greek noun ehr•gon rendered "works", as used in this verse, refers to that which man endeavors to produce in his flesh to gain acceptance with God. This word is basically linked in conjunction with the works of the Law. Now salvation by grace is a free gift from God, whereas the effort to obtain salvation by any form of works is futile, due to the weakness of the flesh (Romans 8:3). Note again, if you mix grace and works, you end up eliminating both of them. In other words they effectively cancel each other out. So we need to be aware of the deleterious results, which follow simultaneously holding to different portions of the Bible that teach both Law and grace. Now as we have already observed, Law avers that man saves himself by his works whereas grace avers that God in Christ has done the work necessary for salvation. Law makes salvation totally dependent upon what man does; therefore there is no assurance that one is saved. Grace makes salvation totally dependent upon what God has done, it is an accomplished fact for a believer; therefore we have assurance that we are saved. Law states that the person who has done its works will live (Romans 10:5), whereas grace states that believing, i.e., exercising one’s God-given faith identifies the believer with the life that is in Christ (Romans 8:2; Galatians 2:20; Colossians 3:3-4; II Timothy 1:1; I John 5:20).

Note that the express differences are only some of the basic differences between Law/work and grace. These two systems operate according to opposite principles, which if mixed, cancel the effectiveness of each other. Now to confuse the Law/Works Covenant of the Old Testament with the Grace/Faith Covenant given to the Church destroys the effectiveness of both as to their respective intents. Also to confuse the Law/Work Covenants of the Messianic Kingdom, presented in the Synoptic Gospels and the first eight chapters of Acts with the Grace/Faith Covenant presented in the New Testament epistles, more specifically the epistles written by and through the Apostle Paul; is to be faced with many conflicting and contradictory statements. Now the thinking elect of God who recognizes these obvious contradictions as one approaches the Bible in a very literal manner; will be forced to acknowledge that these portions of the Bible deal with different subjects, different economics, some which are governed on the basis of Law while others are governed on the basis of grace. The non-thinking elect of God with a more cynical frame of mind and we say this in love who is too involved in other matters to investigate just what the Bible really teaches, may in his slothful academics abandoned it as a trustworthy document due to these seeming contradictions.

Notice, the most subtle, and perhaps the most devastating result of mixing Law/works with Grace, is the subconscious effect it has on those who do so. Now it is sad, but it is a fact that most, yes most believers do not personally and prayfully study their way through the scriptures. Most believers depend upon some other person or persons to tell them what the Bible teaches. Consequently if their teacher or Pastor or mentor does not adequately distinguish Mosaic and Kingdom Laws, with their work covenants from Grace Mystery truth for the Church, then inconsistent conflicting thoughts will be impinging upon their minds. As this insidious process goes on and on, at a conscious or subconscious level, without ever being reversed; it will tend to dilute their devotion and attitude toward the truth of the word of God.

In essence, Grace Mystery Truth, given to the Church should be explicitly obeyed. However, when opposed by misapplied Laws and principles from the Mosaic Law or Kingdom, the internal mental struggle that ensues robs believers of a keen appreciation for Grace Truth, the Gospel of the Grace of God including the knowledge to understand and readiness to obey it. So instead of enjoying the blissfulness of spiritual buoyancy in the body of Christ, they often drift into a state of spiritual indifference and coolness. This, as the record will testify is the most widespread and devastating resulting of canceling out grace by mingling Law with it. This is why an uncompromising stand has to be taken against injecting the Mosaic Law or Kingdom Law into this Church age. The works of the Law mitigate grace, in fact as Paul states in this verse 6 of Romans chapter 11, "grace is no longer grace".

This answer must be linked to another question Paul posed in Romans 3:1; where we read first from the King James Version, "What advantage then hath the Jew? or what profit is there of circumcision? Now we read from the Greek Text, "What then is the advantage of the Jew, or what is the profit of the circumcision?" Here, It is critical for one to cling to the provisions afforded through the grace dispensation, thus forsaking all other dispensations as they relate to ones salvation.

Now in the previous context, Paul has been rough on the inconsistent Law-breaking Jews. In view of the tough stance he has taken against the self-righteous Jews, it is appropriate that he cites some of their advantages. Note that in spite of all the problems the Jews have, when they are compared to the pre-grace debased Gentiles, there are some very distinct advantages. Note that the Greek noun pehr•ees•son translated "advantages" as used here, means that the Jews has something over and above and out beyond the pre-grace Gentiles. Now the second part of this question is an integral of the first, namely "What is the profit of the circumcision of the Jew? Here, Paul asks, "What is the o•phehl•ee•ah rendered "profit, help or benefit" of belonging to the concision or Jewish Commonwealth? Thus the basic question posed in Romans 3:1 is, "What is the advantage and profit of being a Jew?

The answer is found in Romans 3:2 from the King James Version, "Much every way: chiefly, because that unto them were committed the oracles of God". And from the Greek Text, "Much in every way. For indeed first, because they were entrusted with the oracles of God". Notice the phrase "Much in every way", may also be translated, "Great in every way" or "great in every respect". Now the essence of this phrase is that under the grace dispensation, the Jews have many advantages (Romans 9:4-5). As it is conveyed, the pro•ton rendered "first", or "chiefly" or "most important" advantage is that God has entrusted to them His loy•ee•ah rendered "oracles" or that which he had spoken, i.e., His word or His messages for past dispensations. Now for each of the four times the word loy•ee•ah or "oracles" is used in the New Testament, it depicts words revealed by God (Acts 7:38; Hebrews 5:12; I Peter 4:11). God’s entrustment of His oracles with Israel is a confirmed historical fact (Deuteronomy 4:7-8; Psalms 103:7; Psalms 147:19-20).

So why did God reveal His word to Israel? That question includes another question, "Why did God call Abraham, the father of Israel (Genesis 12:1-4)? The answer is not in Abraham but in God, the one who sovereignly chose Abraham to be the progenitor of a new nation, Israel (the Jews). Now God’s choice of Abraham, the Father of His special people, the Jews, is the reason He has entrusted His word with them. God revealed His word to Israel because and only because it was the pleasure of His will.

Here in Romans 3:29, Paul asserts through the grammar he uses that God is also the God of the Gentiles. It is absolutely true that God has given the Israelites some special privileges prior to this present church age (Romans 3:1-2; 9:45). But now both Jews and Gentiles are equally dependant on the mercy of God for their salvation (Romans 11:28-32). It is true that during the transition period, the gospel was first preached to the Jews (Romans 1:16), but now God is equally interested in justifying believers regardless of their race or origin. The fact that God is also the God of the Gentiles testifies that we have now moved our welfare out of the dispensations of past darkness into the glorious light of the dispensation of the Grace of God where Jews and Gentiles equally share the unequaled blessings of those who are placed into the Body of Christ.

Now we move to Romans 3:30 from the King James Version "Seeing it is one God, which shall justify the circumcision by faith, and uncircumcision through faith". And from the Greek Text, "If indeed God is one, who will justify the circumcision out of faith and the uncircumcision through faith". This verse begins with the Greek word ee•pehr, which consists of the Greek conjunction ee with the enclitic particle pehr joined to it, which emphasizes the meaning of the conjunction ee (if). The Apostle Paul uses this compound Greek word several times in the New Testament (Romans 3:30; 8:9,17; I Corinthians 8:5; 15:15; II Thessalonians 1:6). In each of these passages it strengthens the condition or premise posed, and it may be translated "if indeed", "if truly", "if it’s a fact" or "since". In this verse, there was no question in Paul’s mind about God being one, He God is truly one; it is a fact (I Corinthians 8:6). Here Paul’s main burden is to explain how the one true God will justify both Jews and Gentiles. First he states that God "will justify the circumcision out of faith". Now the Greek verb theek•eh•o•seh translated "will justify", is in the future tense, denoting that God will esteem as righteous, just and acquitted the circumcision, i.e., the Israelites or Jews. But how will He effectuate this justifying? The answer is ehk pees•teh•os rendered "out of faith". Here the Greek preposition ehk as used in the ablative case, points to faith as the source, which takes hold of justification. So if this faith were humanly generated it would be derived from works not grace. But since it is the result of grace (Ephesians 2:8-9), it is the gift of God freely imparted to those chosen (Ephesians 1:4; II Timothy 2:10).

Now speaking with reference to the Gentiles, the ahk•rov•ees•tee· ahn rendered "uncircumcision", Paul states that God will justify them thee•ah tees pees•teh•os rendered "through faith". Here in this phrase, we have the preposition thee•ah or "through" as used with the genitive case which points to faith as the agency through which justification is obtained. Note this same phrase "through faith" is used in Ephesians 2:8 as well as Romans 3:25,27,31. Now on the basis of the manner in which Paul uses these two Greek phrases in his epistles: (1). ehk pees•teh•os rendered "out of faith" and (2). thee•ah tees pees•teh•os rendered "through faith"; there is no justification for distinguishing between how God justifies Jews and Gentiles. Both are justified by the faithfulness of Christ, as there is only one source and means of God justifying and identifying His elect, i.e., through the faith in the faithfulness of Jesus Christ that God implants in them (Romans 10:17). Possibly for the sake of variety and greater breadth of thought flow, we have the conveyances of the two expressions thereby giving a more comprehensive view of faith as both the source and agent through which God justifies believers. Therefore we must conclude that justification is both by and through the effectuation and exercise of the gift of faith, which God freely gives.

Now we turn to Romans 3:31 from the King James Version, "Do we then make void the law through faith? God forbid: yea, we establish the law". And from the Greek Text, "Therefore do we annul the law through faith? Let it never be, but we establish the law." Note the burden of this verse is to show that faith has not made the Mosaic Law ineffective, but has established the purpose for which it was given. Here the apostle Paul raises the question, "Do we annul the Law through faith? Since this verse is open to misinterpretation we need to carefully consider the meaning of the two leading verbs in it. First, the Greek verb kaht•ahrg•oo•mehn translated "annul", is comprised of the Greek preposition kaht•ah (down) prefixed to the Greek verb ahry•eh•o, which denotes the state of being inactive, inoperative, or idle. This compound verb infers the act of downgrading the Law to a position of uselessness, hence to abrogate, nullify and make it void of any value. Now according to all of Paul’s writings, the Law was not an intrinsic part of God’s eternal purpose, but was added for a given period of time until Christ came and the ushering in of faith (Galatians 3:19-25). Note the Law was an essential forerunner of faith because it developed a consciousness of the exceeding sinfulness of sin; the prerequisite to incite believers to be justified by faith Corinthians 3:19-20; 7:13). Now in view of what is written in I Timothy 1:8-10, the moral principles of the Law are still applicable to Lawless sinners, in condemning their abominable practices but not to those who are justified in Christ (Romans 6:14).

Now as far as faith annulling the Law was concerned, Paul uses the Greek grammatical construction mee yehn•ee•to rendered "let it never be". In other words absolutely not! In Matthew 5:17-18, Jesus declared "Think not that I am come to destroy the law, or the prophets: I am not come to destroy, but to fulfil. For verily I say unto you, Till heaven and earth pass, one jot or one tittle shall in no wise pass from the law, till all be fulfilled". Now the inability of the Law to free us was not due to any fault of the Law itself. The Law within itself is holy and righteousness. Romans 8:3 states (KJV), "For what the law could not do, in that it was weak through the flesh, God sending his own Son in the likeness of sinful flesh, and for sin, condemned sin in the flesh: Now from the Greek Text, "For the impotency of the law, in that it was weak through the flesh, God, having sent His own Son in the likeness of sinful flesh and concerning sin, condemned sin in the flesh." Note it was the weakness of the flesh that caused impotence of the Law to free us, thus God sent Jesus in the "likeness of sinful flesh" and though His righteousness, "condemned sin in the flesh", in order that the right acts of the Law might be fulfilled in us. So the Mosaic Law in a preparatory sense was in full effect until the faithfulness of Jesus Christ was consummated on Calvary. Note from that time on God has been justifying believers who are identified with the faithfulness of Christ through faith (Galatians 3:22; 24-25; Philippians 3:9).

Now we view the final phrase of this verse (31), "But we establish the Law", particularly the Greek verb ees•tah•no•mehn translated "establish". This verb basically denotes that the Law stands firm or confirmed. Note if God’s underlying reason for giving the Law was to make men righteous, it would have to be stated that He utterly miscalculated the weakness of the flesh for it never made any man righteous (Romans 8:3). It is absolutely true what Moses wrote regarding the righteousness out of the Law, "that the one who has done it will live by it", but it failed because no one ever did it (Romans 3:20; 7:21-23). Now in the total gamut of God’s ultimate purpose in giving the Law, it was to make men righteous, but this necessitated making men conscious of their sinfulness, that the elect of God would forsake their human efforts and believe in Christ, who is the end of the Law unto righteousness (Romans 10:4).

As we examine the beginning of Romans chapter 4, Paul recapitulates the fact of Abraham's position as the progenitor and Father of the Jews. Here Paul also reviews the established principle that Abraham believed God and as a consequence, he learned that God counted it unto him for righteousness (Galatians 3:6). Romans 4:1, indicates that Abraham did not believe God in order to become righteous, but having believed God, he discovered that God imputed it to him for righteousness.

Now we move Romans 4:3, from the King James Version, "For what saith the Scripture? Abraham believed God, and it was counted unto him for righteousness". And from the Greek Text, "For what does the Scripture say? And Abraham believed God, and it was counted to him for righteousness." Here the Apostle refers to the Old Testament Scriptures as he deals with the subject at hand; more specifically Genesis 15:6 and Galatians 4:6-14. With respect to the subject of Grace Mystery Truth, there was no such corroboration, because nothing was written regarding it (Ephesians 3:5,9). Both the Old and New Testaments represented the final court of appeal for Paul in their respective spheres (II Timothy 3:14-17). Here the authority of the scripture settles the issue, without a doubt justification is by or through faith!

Now granting that Abraham was a totally depraved sinner by nature (Ephesians 2:3) and was the recipient of divine faith (Romans 10:17; Ephesians 2:8), it logically follows that his faith was counted for righteousness, as it was the work of God on his behalf. We will further deal more extensively with the corroboration of the Old Testament scriptures to the writings of Paul as we move through the latter verses of this section of the study.

Now we consider Romans 4:6 from the King James Version, "Even as David also describeth the blessedness of the man, unto whom God imputeth righteousness without works." And from the Greek Text, "Even as David also spoke about the blessing of the man to whom God counts righteousness apart from works." Here Paul makes reference to God's dealing with King David as he continues to focus on God's beneficial blessings to men in ages prior to the grace dispensation. In corroborating the fact that God counts believers righteousness on the basis of faith rather than works, Paul has already appealed to the example of Abraham in the Old Testament (Romans 4:3).

For further evidence from the Old Testament, Paul now appeals to that which the Holy Spirit has spoken through David as recorded in Psalms 32:1-2. There are a number of quotations from the Old Testament in the epistle to the Romans, which certainly suggests that there were many Jewish believers in the church at Rome. Here Paul refers to David's testimony concerning ton mahk•ar•ees•mon rendered "the blessing", or happiness of the man whom God reckoned righteous apart form works. This Greek phrase conveys the idea that the person who has imputed righteousness apart from works is a happy, blessed and felicitous individual in an enviable position. The happy state is the result of a sovereign act of God ------- A divine declaration that believers are accounted righteous kho•rees ehr•gon rendered "apart from works", i.e., distinct from, separated from and independent of works (Romans 3:28; Galatians 2:16; Ephesians 2:9).

We continue with Paul's statement of David's testimony as we read Romans 4:7 from the King James Version, "Saying, Blessed are they whose iniquities are forgiven and whose sins are covered. Now from the Greek Text, "Bless are those whose iniquities have been forgiven, and whose sins have been covered." In this and the following verse, Paul cites the evidence for what he said in the preceding verse as recorded in Psalms 32:1-2. Here Paul continues to quote David who describes a group (plural) of people who have an enviable status because they are blessed or happy above all others. So what have they done to obtain this status? The passive voice makes it clear that they did absolutely nothing. It is apparent that God is the one who is wholly responsible for their felicitous state (John 20:29). Now according to David this happiness is the result of God’s sovereignty doing two things. First, those who have had their iniquities forgiven are blessed ones. The Greek verb ahph•eh•thee•sahn translated "Have been forgiven", is in the aorist tense and passive voice and means that their ahn•om•ee•eh rendered "iniquities" thus lawlessness, and transgressions have been forgiven, sent away dismissed and pardoned. Second, those who have their sins covered are blessed ones. The Greek verb ehp•eh•kahl•eeph•thee•sahn translated, "have been covered", is also in the aorist tense and passive voice and means that their ah•mahr•tee•eh or sins, i.e., missing the mark of God's standard and errors have been covered or had a cover placed on them or covered over. It certainly must be recognized that prior to the cross God was able to forgive iniquities and cover sins in view of his foreordained redemptive purpose in Jesus Christ Acts 2:23; 4:28; Romans 3:25-26). Now on this side of the cross we understand that there is no need for a covering, because it has now been manifested that the blood of Jesus has completely eradicated and wiped away the sins of His elect in this dispensation (Hebrews 9:22,26,28; 10:10,14,18).

Here we view Paul’s final statement of David's testimony in Romans 4:8 from the King James Version, "Blessed is the man to whom the Lord will not impute sin." And now from the Greek Text, "Blessed is the man to whom the Lord never counts sin." Now earlier in Romans 4:6 we observed that Paul used the singular number instead of the plural. Since we have the Greek singular, ahn•eer rendered "man" in this verse; we logically assume that its summary truth most accurately confirms the point Paul is making; that a man is counted righteous and justified apart from works. David's forgiven iniquities and c